NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 The Philosophy of the Constitution

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science 

Chapter 10 

The Philosophy of the Constitution 

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved 

Question 1. The following are certain laws. Are they connected with any value? If yes, then what is the underlying value? Give reasons. (a) Both daughters and sons will have share in the family property. (b) There will be different slabs of sales tax on different consumer items. (c) Religious instructions will not be given in any government school. (d) There shall be no begar or forced labour. Answer: (a) It is connected with the value of ‘social justice’ under the right to equality, no one can be discriminated on the ground of colour, race, religion or sex, etc. (b) It is based on the principle of utility of different items only, it comes under economic justice. (c) It is concerned with the secularism. (d) It also refers to social justice, not to be discriminated on any grounds except capability. Question 2. Which of the options given below cannot be used to complete the following statement? Democratic countries need a constitution to: (i) Check the power of the government. (ii) Protect minorities from majority. (iii) Bring independence from colonial rule. (iv) Ensure that a long-term vision is not lost by momentary passions. (v) Bring social change in peaceful manner. Answer: (iii) Bring independence from colonial rule. Question 3. The following are different positions about reading and understanding Constituent Assembly debates. (i) Which of these statements argues that Constituent Assembly debates are relevant even today? Which statement says that they are not relevant? (ii) With which of these positions do you agree and why? Common people are too busy in earning livelihood and meeting different pressures of life. They can’t understand the legal language of these debates. The conditions and challenges today are different from the time when the Constitution was made. To read the ideas of Constitution makers and use them for our new times is trying to bring past in the present Our ways of understanding the world and the present challenges have not changed totally. Constituent Assembly debates can provide us reasons why certain practices are important. In a period when constitutional practices are being challenged, not knowing the reasons can destroy them. Answer: (i) This statement shows relevancy today. This statement is not relevant today. It states that these are relevant even today. (ii) Yes, I agree because it is necessary to understand and interpret the variousarticles which contain a lot of legal terms, not to be easily comprehended. Yes, again I agree because the constitution has been amended more than 100 times till date. Yes, I agree with this position also because the most important challenges have not been changed still. Question 4. Explain the difference between the Indian Constitution and western ideas in the light of (a) Understanding of secularism. (b) Articles 370 and 371. (c) Affirmative action. (d) Universal adult franchise. Answer: (a) Understanding of secularism: The western ideas of secular states treat religion as a private matter which is not given either public or official recognition. In India, all religions are given equal status to be honoured and the state could also help the religious communities in the form of educational aid to institutions run by them. (b) Article 370 and 371: Unlike the constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian federalism has been constitutionally asymmetric. The accession of Jammu and Kashmir was based on the commitment to safeguard its autonomy, which is governed by its own constitution under Article 370. The privileges of special status were accorded to the North-Eastern states under Article 371(A). (c) Affirmative action: In reference of America, where the constitution was written in 18th century, finds itself unable to be accommodated with the values and standard of 21st century. Whereas the constitution makers of India structured the constitution in such a manner to be amended as per needs and aspirations of society without violating its basic structure. Constitution of India is democratic, liberal, secular and federal, etc. to maintain unity and integrity of India. (d) Universal adult franchise: In the western democracies the right to vote has been recently extended to women, but India exercises this from the very beginning without any discrimination. Question 5. Which of the following principles of secularism are adopted in the Constitution of India? (a) that state will have nothing to do with religion (b) that state will have close relation with religion (c) that state can discriminate among religions (d) that state will recognize rights of religious groups (e) that state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions Answer: (a) that state will have nothing to do with religion (d) that state will recognize rights of religious groups (e) that state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions Q6. Match the Question 6. Match the following: (a) Freedom to criticize treatment of widows 1. Substantive achievement (b) Taking decisions in the constituent assembly on the basis of reason, not self interest 2. Procedural achievement (c) Accepting importance of community in an individual’s life 3. Neglect of gender justice (d) Article 370 and 371 4. Liberal individualism (e) Unequal rights to women regarding family property and children 5. Attention to requirements of a particular region Answer: (a)—(2) (b)—(1) (c)—(4) (d)—(5) (e)—(3) Question 7. This discussion was taking place in a class. Read the various arguments and state which of these do you agree with and why. Jayesh: I still think that our Constitution is only a borrowed document. Saba: Do you mean to sav that there is nothing Indian in it? But is there such a thing as Indian and western in the case of values and ideas? Take equality between men and women. What is western about it? And even if it is, should we reject it only because it is western? Jayesh: What I mean is that after fighting for independence from the British, did we not adopt their system of parliamentary government? Neha: You forget that when we fought the British, we were not against the British as such, we were against the principle of colonialism. That has nothing to do with adopting a system of government that we wanted, wherever it came from. Answer: Jayesh senses that there is nothing original in the Constitution of India because many provisions have been borrowed from the Constitution of other countries or from Government of India Act, 1935. Saba argues that there are similarity in the case of values and ideas and no difference is there on equality of men and women. Hence it is not the reason to reject it. Again Jayesh argued not to follow the British policies after independence. Neha countered him that our national movement was not against the British, but it was against the principle of colonialism. Hence, we may adopt the goodness of any entity if it suits us.Conclusion-It may be concluded that there is nothing wrong in borrowing the provisions from other countries as per suitability. Question 8. Why is it said that the making of the Indian Constitution was unrepresentative? Does that make the Constitution unrepresentative? Give reasons for your answer. Answer: The Constitution of India was framed in November 1946 through indirect election of its members by provincial legislatures under the provisions of Cabinet Mission Plan 1946. The Assembly consisted of 389 members out of which 292 were to be elected from the provinces, 93 were to be nominated from princely states and four members were to be nominated from Chief Commissioner’s areas. Each provincial Assembly elected its own members through single transferable vote system. Due to declaration of partition in June 1947 under Mount batten Plan, this membership reduced to 299 and finally 28 4 members signed on the constitution on 26 November, 1949. On August 15, 1947, the Constituent Assembly functioned as a sovereign entity but it is considered unrepresentative because its members were chosen by restricted franchise in place of universal suffrage. But Constituent Assembly included the members from each and every section of society to be represented and on a thorough reading, we may find that no section is untouched on the various issues and opinions. Question 9. One of the limitations of the Constitution of India is that it does not adequately attend to gender justice. What evidence can you give to substantiate this charge? If you were writing the Constitution today, what provisions would you recommend for remedying this limitation? Answer: On the social conditions, there may be very controversial matters which may need careful revision: Most important issue is gender justice, particularly within the family. Women enjoy unequal rights on property inheritance and children. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been inserted in the directive principles in place of Fundamental Rights. My recommendation: The empowerment of women. To make provisions for inheritance of property in favour of women on equal basis. (Hi) To make provisions for reservations of seats. Question 10. Do you agree with the statement that “it is not clear why in a poor developing country, certain basic socio-economic rights were relegated to the section on Directive Principles rather than made an integral feature of our Fundamental Rights”? Give reasons for your answer. What do you think are the possible reasons for putting socio-economic rights in the section on Directive Principles? Answer: Directive Principles of state policy focus on the need of an egalitarian society: These principles are complementary to fundamental rights because fundamental rights ensure the political democracy while these principles aim at social-economic democracy. Fundamental rights are justiciable or protected by law where directive principles are moral values supposed to be followed by the government. Hence, in a poor country, certain basic social-economic rights were inserted in directive principles rather than making it in the fundamental rights. Our country was so poor at that time, when it was not possible to give much pressure on the states for socio-economic moral values. Under Article 37 of Constitution, “It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws”. If any government overlooks these, it will lose confidence of people and cannot remain in power. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Extra Questions Solved Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions Question 1. Which rights are considered as a part of individual freedom? Answer: Right to life Equal access to public places Freedom of speech and expressions Freedom of religion and faith Question 2. What are the main two streams of liberalism of India? Answer: Raja Ram Mohan Roy emphasized on individual rights especially for women. Swami Vivekanand emphasized on social justice. Question 3. What is ‘Secularism’? Answer: Secularism means state honours all the religions on equal basis Question 4. What is meant by ‘mutual exclusion’ in secularism? Answer: Mutual exclusion in secularism means that religion and state must be strictly separated. Question 5. Why do we need constitution? Answer: To provide a framework, within which the government has to work. It demarcates between the powers of different organs of government to minimise the disputes. It controls the misuse of power by government. To safeguard Fundamental Rights of citizens. Question 6. Write the main features of Constitution of India. Answer: It establishes a sovereign, democratic, republic in India. It establishes a parliamentary form of government (Bi-cameral legislatures). It provides fundamental rights and fundamental duties of the citizens. It establishes a secular state. Question 7. ‘India is a union of states’. Justify the statement. Answer: India is a union of states in the following sense: Through the various lists union, state and concurrent lists, the powers have been distributed between the central and state government. The Constitution of India is a written document consisting the details concerning the union government and state government. Question 8. Mention four ideals to be embodied in the preamble of constitution. Answer: Every citizen of India will have social, political and economic justice. Every citizen will have the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. Every citizen will be provided equality of status and opportunity. Fraternity to assure dignity of the individual and integrity of the nation. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions Question 1. Is India a secular state? Why do we need a secular country in modern times? Answer: Yes, India is a secular state because: India has no religion of its own. Under Article 25 to 28, the right to freedom of religion has been granted to all the persons residing in India. All persons in India are equally free to progress, practicise or propagate the religion of their own choices. Secular state is must in modern times because: It opposes to intra-religious domination. To value peace, religion and state must be kept separate. It promotes freedom within religions. Question 2. How can we say that the Constitution of India pays equal respect to different communities? Answer: Every community wants to dominate the other community if they are not given an equal relationship by the state: It was a great challenge before the constitution-makers to foster a sense of equal respect in the conditions of hierarchy or intense rivalry. India is a land of multiple cultural communities to ensure community-based right to be mandatory. Hence, fundamental rights of religious communities to establish and run their own educational institutions as well as to receive money from the government for the same. Question 3. Mention some unique feature of Constitution of India. Answer: It is the written and lengthiest one to have 395 Articles and 12 schedules. It is federal in form but unitary in spirit. Constitution of India has a provision of six fundamental rights to ensure political democracy. It has provisions for directive principles of state policy also to ensure socio-economic justice. It is a blend of flexibility and rigidity both to be amended from time to time. By 42nd amendment 10 fundamental duties have also been inserted. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Passage Based Questions Passage 1. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 227) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: The liberalism of the Indian Constitution differs from this version in two ways. First, it was always linked to social justice. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore, the constitution-makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups. Questions: 1. How is the liberalism of the Indian Constitution differed? 2. Who has been given the reservation by the Constitution? 3. What other provision was also made for these groups to protect their interests? Answers: 1. Because it is linked to social justice. 2. The SC’s and ST’s. 3. To reserve public sector jobs for these groups. Passage 2. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 226) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: It is not surprising therefore that freedom of expression is an integral part of the Indian Constitution. So is the freedom from arbitrary arrest. After all, the infamous Rowlatt Act, which the national movement opposed so vehemently, sought to deny this basic freedom. These and other individual freedoms such as freedom of conscience are part of the liberal ideology. On this basis, we can say that the Indian Constitution has a pretty strong liberal character. In the chapter on fundamental rights we have already seen how the Constitution values individual freedom. It might be recalled that for over forty years before the adoption of the Constitution, every single resolution, scheme, bill and report of the Indian National Congress mentioned individual rights, not just in passing but as a non-negotiable value. Questions: 1. What is an integral part of constitution? 2. Which act denied the freedom of expression? 3. Which were the non-negotiable values as per Indian national congress? Answers: 1. Freedom of Expression. 2. The Rowlatt Act (1919) 3. Individual rights only. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions Question 1. Define duty. What are the fundamental duties given in the Constitution of India? Answer: Duty is a positive or negative work that one is assigned to do either one likes or not. Hence 10 fundamental duties have been inserted in the Constitution of India: To obtain by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, i.e. National Flag and National Anthem. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired national struggle for freedom. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of nation. To defend the country and national service to be rendered if required. To promote harmony and the spirit of brotherhood and to renounce practices derogatory to women. To value and preserve the rich heritage of India. To protect and improve the natural environment and have compassion for living creatures. To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform. To safeguard public property and to adjure violence. To strive towards excellence to rise the nation at the constant highest level of achievements. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Picture-Based Questions 1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 225) given below and answer the questions that follow: NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 The Philosophy of the Constitution Picture Based Questions Q1 Questions: 1. What does the cartoon represent? 2. Who is playing the role of ‘Umpire’? 3. Why democracy has been referred to as umpire? Answers: 1. Cartoon represents the different groups and sections playing together. 2. Democracy is playing the role of ‘Umpire’. 3. Democracy refers to the involvement of people. Hence everyone has been given the due representation in the Constitution to avoid conflicts together. Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solution

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Constitution as a Living Document

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science

Chapter 9 

Constitution as a Living Document

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved 

Question 1. Choose the correct statement from the following. A constitution needs to be amended from time to time because, 1. Circumstances change and require suitable changes in the constitution. 2. A document written at one point of time becomes outdated after some time. 3. Every generation should have a constitution of its own liking. 4. It must reflect the philosophy of the existing government. Answer: Because circumstances change and require suitable changes in the constitution. Question 2. Write True / False against the following statements. (a) The President cannot send back an amendment bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. (b) Elected representatives alone have the power to amend the Constitution. (c) The Judiciary cannot initiate the process of constitutional amendment but can effectively change the Constitution by interpreting it differently. (d) The Parliament can amend any section of the Constitution. Answer: (a) True (b) True (c) True (d) False Question 3. Which of the following are involved in the amendment of the Indian Constitution? In what way are they involved? (a) Voters (b) President of India (c) State Legislatures (d) Parliament (e) Governors (f) Judiciary Answer: (a) Voters are not involved in the amendment of the constitution. (b) President of India is involved in the amendment of constitution. An amendment bill after ratification by two houses of parliament goes to the president for his approval, he has no power to send this amendment bill back for reconsideration. (c) State Legislatures are involved for some articles of constitution related to distribution of powers between the centre and states and articles related to representation, is necessary to be consulted with states. In some of the amendments, half of the states have to ratify the particular amendment bill. (d) Parliament involves in the amendment because some bills/article are amended by simple majority. Some by special majority in both the houses of parliament separately and later, these are ratified by at least half of the states also. (e) Governors have no role in the amendment of constitution of India except those articles only which are ratified by half of the states. Because, governor also signs on the bills passed by state legislatures. (f) Judiciary involves to specify the basic structure or to take care that in any case, constitution’s basic structure should not be changed, only amendments are required. Question 4. You have read in this chapter that the 42nd amendment was one of the most controversial amendments so far. Which of the following were the reasons for this controversy? (a) It was made during national emergency, and the declaration of that emergency was itself controversial. (b) It was made without the support of special majority. (c) It was made without ratification by the State legislatures. (d) It contained provisions, which were controversial. Answer: Because: It over rided the decision of the supreme court given in the Kesavananda case. The duration of Lok Sabha was extended from five to six years. It imposed restrictions on the power of judicial review of court. It also made changes to the preamble, seventh schedule and 53 articles of constitution, Various MPs from opposition were in jail. Question 5. Which of the following is not a reasonable explanation of the conflict between the legislature and the judiciary over different amendments? (a) Different interpretations of the Constitution are possible. (b) In a democracy, debates and differences are natural. (c) Constitution has given higher importance to certain rules and principles and also allowed for amendment by special majority. (d) Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of the citizens. (e) Judiciary can only decide the constitutionality of a particular law; cannot resolve political debates about its need. Answer: (d) Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of citizens because issues of rights are resolved by the constitution under the Right to Constitutional Remedies. Question 6. Identify the correct statements about the theory of basic structure. Correct the incorrect statements. (a) Constitution specifies the basic tenets. (b) Legislature can amend all parts of the Constitution except the basic structure. (c) Judiciary has defined which aspects of the Constitution can be termed as the basic structure and which cannot. (d) This theory found its first expression in the Kesavananda Bharati case and has been discussed in subsequent judgments. (e) This theory has increased the powers of the judiciary and has come to be accepted by different political parties and the government. Answer: (a) It is an incorrect statement because constitution does not specify basic tenets, the basic structure has been evolved by the supreme court. (b) It is a correct statement. (c) It is correct because the basic theory is the invention of judiciary. (d) It is a correct statement. (e) It is a correct statement. Question 7. From the information that many amendments were made during 2000-2003, which of the following conclusions would you draw? (a) Judiciary did not interfere in the amendments made during this period (b) One political party had a strong majority during this period. (c) There was strong pressure from the pubic in favour of certain amendments. (d) There were no real differences among the parties during this time. (e) The amendments were of a non-controversial nature and parties had an agreement on the subject of amendments. Answer: (c) (d) and (e) Question 8. Explain the reason for requiring special majority for amending the Constitution. Answer: Special majority is required in the different manner: Half of the total strength of the house, who are in favour of the amendment bill. Two-third of those supporters who participate in voting. Both the houses of parliament must pass the bill separately also. The above mentioned majorities are required because: To take some opposition parties into confidence due to majority. On the issues of distribution of powers, some articles are needed to be consulted with the states. Through wide consensus and limited participation of states, constitution can be amended. To maintain partial flexibility and rigidity, consent of half of the states and simple majority of state legislature is sufficient. Question 9. Many amendments to the Constitution of India have been made due to different interpretations upheld by the Judiciary and the Parliament. Explain with examples. Answer: The first amendment act of 1951, made changes in the constitution due to some flows in the working of constitution and those were to be remedied. Under Article 19, Right to Freedom of speech and expression was held by some courts to be very comprehensive, not to take any action against any individual. Many laws made on abolition of Zamindari System were declared Ultra Vires by courts, hence, constitution was amended. In the case of Keshavananda Bharti, Parliament’s power to amend the constitution was checked and limited them by instructing not to violate the basic structure of constitution as well as parliament can amend if clashes arise between the judiciary and the government. In 1971, by 24th amendment parliament got the power to amend the constitution including the fundamental rights. 42nd amendment (1976) was most controversial as amendment were made in the background of internal emergency as well as imposed some restrictions on the power of judicial review of the court. 44th amendments cancelled most of the changes which were affected by 38th, 39th, 42nd amendments, i.e. changes in Preamble to the seventh schedule, other 53 Articles, etc. Sometimes, judicial interpretations also changed the understanding of constitution, i. e. the supreme court had held that reservation in jobs and educational institutions must not exceed 50% of the total seats. Question 10. If amending power is with the elected representatives, judiciary should NOT have the power to decide the validity of amendments. Do you agree? Give your reasons in 100 words. Answer: No, I don’t agree on the view because: During the period of 1970-1980, whatsoever amendments were made, these created a legal and political controversy, only interference of judiciary tackled them. During the period 1971-1976, the ruling party attempted to subvert the constitution by 42nd amendment Act. Again, judiciary intervened and protected the basic structure of the constitution. A constitutional legal issue raises the question on the supremacy of parliament but the constitution has given the powers to every organ of government, hence, judiciary enjoys the power to decide the validity of amendments. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 NCERT Extra Questions Solved Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions Question 1. What is the objective of constitution of India as embodied in the Preamble? Answer. Justice-Social, Political, Economic. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. Equality of status and opportunity. Fraternity assuring the dignity of individual and unity of nation. Question 2. In which countries, people initiate amendments to the constitution? Answer: Russia, Switzerland, Italy, etc. Question 3. In which year, the 42nd Amendment took place? Answer: 1976 Question 4. How many times, the former Soviet Union had formal new constitutions? Answer: Four constitutions within 74 years (1918, 1924, 1936 and 1977) Question 5. How the basic structure of the Constitution of India has been maintained till date? Answer: Constitution-makers were very farsighted who provided many solution for future situations. The provisions for amendments were also made to changing needs of society. Question 6. When was the Constitution of India adopted? Answer: On 26 November, 1949 Question 7. When did the constitution of India come into force? Answer: On 26 January, 1950. Question 8. By which amendment, the age of retirement of high court judges increased from 60 to 62 years? Answer: 15th amendment. Question 9. Which amendment increased the salaries of judges of high court and supreme court? Answer: 55th amendment. Question 10. Which amendments are known as anti-defection amendments? Answer: 52nd and 91st Amendments (brought down the minimum age from 21 to 18 years). Question 11. Who enjoys the power to amend the constitution and how? Answer: Parliament of India under Article 368 enjoys the power to amend the constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision by the procedure laid down in Article 368: By simple majority in parliament. By special majority in both the houses of parliament (Article 368). By special majority legislatures of half of the states. Question 12. Mention the constitutional development in France. Answer: France is getting continuously constitutional changes after the revolution and Nepoleonic period: The first French Republic took place in 1793. Second Republic commenced in 1848 with new constitution. Third time it commenced in 1875 and again in 1946. Fifth Republic took place in 1958 again. Question 13. What does the ‘Ratification by States’ stand for amendments in constitution? Answer: If any amendment aims to modify federal structure or fundamental rights or representation of states in parliament, this amendment bill is necessary to be passed by at least half of the state legislature to ensure a wider consensus, because it affects the states directly. Question 14. What does the rigid as well as flexible constitution stand for? Answer: A constitution is a living document which must be amended if required as per needs and aspirations of people as well as must be protected from unnecessary and frequent changes. Question 15. Why is the 42nd amendment called the mini constitution? Answer: Because: It attempted to override the ruling of supreme court in the case of Keshavanand Bharti. This imposed some restrictions on the power of courts to do judicial review. Lok Sabha’s tenure was extended from five years to six years. This made changes to the preamble’s seventh schedule of constitution and 53 other articles. Question 16. Mention any two factors which make the constitution of India a living document. Answer: The required modifications can be made as per the changing needs and aspiration of society. This is flexible also to be interpreted and implemented. Question 17. ‘The constitution of India maintains unity and integrity of the country. Justify the statement. Answer: Because: India has been declared a secular state Provision of single citizenship. One constitution only. 22 languages have been recognized by the constitution. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions Question 1. What do you mean by political and economic justice? Answer: Political Justice-It provides that all citizens should enjoy the equal political rights without any discrimination as well as they should be free to participate in the government. Economic Justice-It provides maximum welfare to the people by reducing the gaps between extremely rich or poor, so that everybody could earn livelihood by equal opportunities of employment. / Question 2. What are the technical amendments? Explain with the examples. Answer: Technical amendments are only clarifications, explanations, and modifications in the provisions of constitution, which make no substantial change to the provisions. Its examples are: The 15th amendment to increase the age of retirement of high court judges from 60 to 62 years. To increase salaries of the judges of high court and supreme court by 55th amendment. Provisions for reservation of seats for SC’s and ST’s in legislatures. The amendment in Article 74(1) to bind the President on the advice of council of ministers. Question 3. How has the Keshavanand ruling contributed to the evolution of the constitution? Answer: In 1973, Keshavanand ruling contributed to maintain the basic structure of the constitution: It limited the power of parliament that the basic structured could not be violated. It allows parliament to amend any and all parts of the constitution within this limitation only. It places the judiciary as a final decision maker if any amendment violates the basic structure and its constituents. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions Passage 1. Read the passage NCERT Textbook, page 204) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: For some articles of the Constitution, special majority is not sufficient. When an amendment aims to modify an article related to distribution of powers between the States and the central government, or articles related to representation, it is necessary that the States must be consulted and that they give their consent. We have studied the federal nature of the Constitution. Federalism means that powers of the States must not be at the mercy of the central government. The Constitution has ensured this by providing that legislatures of half the States have to pass the amendment bill before the amendment comes into effect. Apart from the provisions related to federal structure, provisions about fundamental rights are also protected in this way. We can say that for some parts of the Constitution, greater or wider consensus in the polity is expected. This provision also respects the States and gives them participation in the process of amendment. At the same time, care is taken to keep this procedure somewhat flexible even in its more rigid format: consent of only half the States is required and simple majority of the State legislature is sufficient. Thus, the amendment process is not impracticable even after taking into consideration this more stringent condition. Questions: 1. What is federalism? 2. When the consent of states is necessary in Parliament ;? 3. What is the provision for these amendments? Answers: 1. Federalism means that the powers of the state must not be at the mercy of the central government. 2. If any amendment is related to the distribution of powers between the center and the states and the articles related to the representation. Then the consent of states is necessary in parliament. 3. Consent of half of the states. Simple majority of the state legislature. Passage 2. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 208) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: A number of amendments are a product of different interpretations of the Constitution given by the judiciary and the government of the day. When these clashed, the Parliament had to insert an amendment underlining one particular interpretation as the authentic one. It is a part of the democratic politics that various institutions would interpret the Constitution and particularly the scope of their own powers in a different manner. Many times, the Parliament did not agree with the judicial interpretation and therefore, sought to amend the Constitution to overcome the ruling of the judiciary. In the period between 1970 and 1975 this situation arose frequently. Questions: 1. What are the amendments? 2. What can be done if any clash arises between the judiciary and the government on amendments? 3. Did this situation arise practically and when? Answers: 1. Amendments are the products of different interpretations of the Constitution given by the judiciary and the government of the day. 2. In case of clash, the Parliament had to insert an amendment underlining one particular interpretation as authentic one. 3. Yes, this situation arose in the period between 1970 and 1975. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions Question 1. “The Constitution of India is a living document”. Explain. Answer: The Constitution of India is a living document. It can be enumerated in the following terms: It has continuously been responding to the various circumstances from time to time. Our constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, since then the government is supposed to work within its framework The constitution makers made the best efforts to accommodate the various changes as per needs and aspirations of society. It is open to interpretations and the ability to respond to the changing situations. It protects the rule of law in favour of democratic set up. The constitution responds to various experiences also. Though many changes have taken place, still the constitution works in an effective manner. Question 2. Mention the different methods to amend the constitution. Answer: By a simple majority: Amendments can take place by a resolution passed by simple majority in both the houses of parliament. It creates the most flexible features of the constitution. It can be amended/passed by simple majority of members present and voting in both the houses. Its examples are changing the boundaries of states, creation of new states, fixing the number of judges in Supreme Court, etc. By two third majority in both the houses of Parliament: Resolution should be passed by a two-third majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of parliament. Amendment resolution can be moved in any house and if passed by majority of total membership and 2/3 majority of members present and voting it is sent to the other house. If the same procedure takes place in the other house also, the bill is passed. id) Many times Rajya Sabha has rejected the amendment bills passed by Lok Sabha, i.e. bill on Panchayats and Nagarpalikas. By two-third majority in both the houses of Parliament and approval of half of the state legislature: Amendment should be passed by both the houses of Parliament with majority of total member strength and of 2/3 majority of those present and voting. The resolution should be ratified by at least half of the state legislature. Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solution

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 
Political Science 
Chapter 8 
Local Governments 

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions 

Solved 

Questions 1. Constitution of India visualized village panchayats as emits of self-government. Think over the situation described in the following statements and explain how do these situations strengthen or weaken the panchayats in becoming units of self-government. 

(a) Government of a State has allowed a big company to establish a huge steel plant. Many villages would be adversely affected by the steel plant. Gram Sabha of one of the affected villages passed a resolution that before establishing any big industries in the region, village people must be consulted and their grievances should be redressed. 

(b) The government has decided that 20 % of all its expenditure would be done through the panchayats. (c) A village panchayat kept on demanding funds for a building for village school, the government officials turned down their proposal saying that funds are allocated for certain other schemes and cannot be spent otherwise. 

(d) The government divided a village Dungarpur into two and made a part of village Jamuna and Sohana. Now village Dungarpur has ceased to exist in government’s books.

(e) A village panchayat observed that water sources of their region are depleting fast. They decided to mobilise village youth to do some voluntary work and revive the old village ponds and wells. 

Answer: (a) This refers that Gram Panchayat was not consulted before the establishment of steel plant, by the state government. This action can weaken the institution of panchayats. The resolution passed by Gram Sabha strengthened the panchayats by giving them right to move to courts against the unilateral move of the state government. 

(b) This decision of state government help the panchayats financially on the ground not to interfere in the decisions and priorities of the panchayats as well as panchayats need independent sources of revenue to operate effectively at the local level. 

(c) This will weaken the Panchayati Raj because these institutions prioritize their developmental agenda themselves and denial for the same weaken them to become a self government. 

(d) If this division has taken place on the recommendations of Panchayati Raj Institutions, it strengthen their powers but if it has been done on its own by the state, it would weaken these institutions. 

(e) This will strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions’ respect and power. 

 Questions 2. Suppose you are entrusted to evolve a local government plan of a State, what powers would you endow to the village panchayats to function as units of self-government? Mention any five powers and the justification in two lines for each of them for giving those powers. 

Answer: Development works at village level, i.e. irrigation facilities, drinking water, construction of roads, etc. Agricultural development to be supervised and implemented by the panchayats only related to agricultural practices in a modem method. Social welfare related activities to keep the records of birth and death in the village, family welfare and family planning. The Gram Panchayat should be given the powers to open and maintain schools and Libraries in the village to maintain primary education. Gram Panchayats should enjoy the powers to ensure better health and life of citizens to provide basic civil amenities. 

Questions 3. What are the provisions for the reservations for the socially disadvantaged groups as per the 73rd amendment? Explain how these provisions have changed the profile of the leadership at the village level. 

Answer: In 1993, two constitutional amendment Acts, were passed to recognise local self-government at the grass-root level. 73rd amendment made the following provisions: The reservation of seats has been made for SCs, STs, OBCs and women. Reservation for women at panchayats has ensured the participation of women in local bodies. Due to this reservation, a number of women have occupied even the position of Sarpanch and Adhyaksha. Hence, more than 80,000 women Sarpanch have been elected so far. 

Questions 4. What were the main differences between the local governments before 73rd amendment and after that amendment? 

Answer: Before 73rd Amendment: Local government was a state subject only. States were free to make their own kind of laws in local government. After 73rd Amendment: Local governments have received the recognition as a separate entity in the constitution. Elections at every regular interval of five years have been made mandatory. The seats have been reserved in favour of SC’s, ST’s, OBC’s and women. State Election Commission has been appointed and made responsible to conduct free and fair elections here. After every five years, state finance commission has been set up to review the finances of the panchayats and to make recommendations for grants to panchayats. The panchayats have been empowered to collect, levy the appropriate taxes, fees, tools as assigned by state government. 

Questions 5. Read the following conversation. Write in two hundred words your opinion about the issues raised in this conversation. Alok: Our Constitution guarantees equality between men and women. Reservations in local bodies for women ensure their equal share in power. Neha: But it is not enough that women should be in positions of power. It is necessary that the budget of local bodies should have separate provision for women. Jayesh: I don’t like this reservations business. A local body must take care of all people in the village and that would automatically take care of women and their interests. 

Answer: This conversation is based on the issue of empowerment of women on equal basis: The constitution of India guarantees the equality of men and women. Under Article 15, no citizen can be discriminated on the grounds of colour, race, language and religion, caste, sex, etc. Article 39(1) and (d) ensure an adequate livelihood and equal pay for equal work for both men and women respectively. Alok views that our constitution guarantees equality between men and women as well as reservations in local bodies also ensure the equal share of power. Neha views to have separate provisions of budget to women to improve women’s conditions. Jayesh views to provide provisions equally to all people living in village, hence women would automatically be benefited. But, if women will be provided to equal access along with men without any reservation, it will not get success at all. Without reservation, women will not succeed to the power and to make policies because of male dominant society in India. 

Questions 6. Read the provisions of the 73rd Amendment. Which of the following concerns does this amendment address? 

(a) Fear of replacement makes representatives accountable to the people. 

 (b) The dominant castes and feudal landlords dominate the local bodies. 

(c) Rural illiteracy is very high. Illiterate people cannot take decisions about the development of the village. 

(d) To be effective the village panchayats need resources and powers to make plans for the village development. 

Answer: (a) After 73rd Amendment Act, 1993: It is mandatory to hold elections after every five years. If the state government dissolves the panchayats before the completion of term, fresh elections must take place within six months. 

(b) Reservation for SCs, STs, and women have been provided. The women have reservation of 1/3 seats in local bodies. SCs and STs have been given proportion accordingly to their population of that particular area. Hence, dominance of feudal lords and dominant classes has come to an end. 

(c) In the eleventh schedule of the constitution, 29 subjects have been given to localbodies in 1992. Primary and secondary education is the part of this list to make the people literate in village. The state government would shoulder the responsibility. . 

(d) The panchayats have been given powers to levy, collect taxes, duties and fees according to state government’s provision. The provisions for the establishment of a state finance commission have also been made to review the finances of panchayats and to make recommendations also. 

Questions 7. The following are different justifications given in favour of local government. Give them ranking and explain why you attach greater significance to a particular rationale than the others. According to you, on which of these rationales the decision of the Gram panchayat of Vengaivasal village was based? How? 

(a) Government can complete the projects with lesser cost with the involvement of the local community. 

(b) The development plans made by the local people will have greater acceptability than those made by the government officers. 

(c) People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life. 

(d) It is difficult for the common people to contact their representatives of the State or the national legislature. 

Answer: These can be ranked as follows: 

(c) People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life. 

(a) Government can complete the projects with lesser cost with the involvement of the local community. 

(b) The development plans made by the local people will have greater acceptability than those made by the government officers. 

(c) People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life. 

decision of Gram Panchayat of Vengaivasal village was based on the rational 

(c)— people know their needs, areas, problems and priorities to take decision about life. 

 Qustions 8. Which of the following according to you involve decentralization? Why are other options not sufficient for decentralization? 

(a) To hold election of the Gram Panchayat. 

(b) Decision by the villagers themselves about what policies and programmes are useful for the village.

 (c) Power to call meeting of Gram Sabha. 

(d) A Gram Panchayat receiving the report from the Block Development Officer about the progress of a project started by the State government. 

Answer: (a) It may be the main point of involvement of decentralization. 

(b) The representatives are elected by the villagers only from among themselves. 

(c) It may also be subsidiary. 

(d) It is the manifestation of the working of decentralization. 

 Questions 9. A student of Delhi University, Raghavendra Parpanna, wanted to study the role of decentralization in decision making about primary education. He asked some questions to the villagers. These questions are given below. If you were among those villagers, what answer would you give to each of these questions? A meeting of the Gram Sabha is to be called to discuss what steps should be taken to ensure that every child of the village goes to the school. 

(а) How would you decide the suitable day for the meeting? Think who would be able to attend/not attend the meeting because of your choice. A day specified by the BDO or the collector Day of the village haat Sunday Naag panchami/sankranti 

(b) What is a suitable venue for the meeting? Why? Venue suggested by the circular of the district collector. Religious place in the village. Dalit Mohalla. Upper caste Tola Village school

(c) In the Gram Sabha meeting firstly a circular sent by the district collector was read. It suggested what steps should be taken to organise an education rally and what should be its route. The meeting did not discuss about the children who never come to school or about girls’ education, or the condition ol the school building and the timing of the school. No women teacher attended the meeting as it was held on Sunday. What do you think about these proceedings as an instance of people’s participation? 

(d) Imagine your class as the Gram Sabha. Discuss the agenda of the meeting and suggest some steps to realize the goal. 

Answer: (a) The day of village haat would be the most appropriate due to availability of a number of peoples to sell and purchase the commodities. 

(b) The most suitable venue for the meeting would be the village school where every person feel free to move and come to join the meeting because rest of the venues are community based and people will not be comfortable to join the meeting. 

(c) It was held on Sunday, hence the women teachers did not attend it. A Gram Sabha meeting should be held to discuss the problems of village in place of organising an education rally. This meeting had to discuss the problems like education, condition of school, girls education as well as regularity of children in school. 

(d) The agenda would be for meeting: Regularity of students in school, if not, how to make it regular. To focus on poverty alleviation Programmes. To focus on Landlessness of farmers. The construction work in village required. Socio-cultural programmes. To arrange the funds for the programmes decided. Vote of thanks by Gram-Pradhan. 

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT 

Extra Questions Solved Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 

NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions 

 Questions 1. What do you mean by local government? 

Answer: The local government gives a strength to the democratic setup in a country to ensure participation of local people at the level of villages and towns. 

 Questions 2. Name the Viceroy who created the local bodies in British India.

 Answer: Lord Ripon (1882). 

 Questions 3. Name the states to have local government during 1960s and 1970s. Answer: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. 

 Questions 4. Mention the sources of income of local bodies. 

Answer: Different taxes. Income for passing the building plans of citizens. Grants from state government. Income from entertainment taxes imposed on fares, circus, etc. 

Questions 5. Name the main local self governing bodies. 

Answer: Gram Panchayat to function in villages. Municipal committees in small towns. Municipal corporation in big cities. 

Questions 6. Mention the three organs of Gram Panchayat. 

Answer: Gram Sabha Gram Pnachayat Nyaya Panchayat 

Questions 7. What do you mean by Panchayati Raj? 

Answer: Panchayati Raj is a part of local government for the upliftment of villages. 

Questions 8. What are the organs of Panchayati Raj? 

Answer: Gram Panchayat Panchayat Samiti Zila parishad 

Questions 9. Write the main functions of each of the organs of Gram Panchayat. Answer: Gram Sabha elects the members of Gram Panchayat Gram Panchayat looks after the developmental projects in village Nyaya Panchayat settles down the minor disputes of villages. 

Questions 10. Who is known as Mayor? 

Answer: The formal head of Municipal Corporation to be elected for one year by the members of corporation is called Mayor. 

Questions 11. Mention the role of‘State Election Commissioner’s. Answer: The State Election Commission is an independent officer to be appointed by the state government to conduct elections in Panchayati Raj Institutions. 

Questions 12. What is the need and importance of local bodies? Answer: Need: Local bodies ensure participation of local people to run the government who better know the problems as well as their solutions. Importance: The local people co-operate with the administration for its smooth running. Questions 13. Mention the views of Mahatma Gandhi on village Panchayats. Answer: He strongly pleaded for decentralization of powers. Mahatma Gandhi viewed independence of India as a whole to begin at the bottom (village). He wanted every village to be self-sustained and capable of managing its own affairs. 

Questions 3. What is the composition of Gram Sabha? 

Answer: It consists of all the voters residing in the jurisdiction of village panchayat either one or group of villages to meet at least twice in a year. Every resident either man or woman in the age of 18 years and above is the member of it. 

Questions 4. What are the main functions of Gram Sabha? 

Answer: It elects the members of Gram Panchayat. It passes annual budget of Gram Panchayat and approves it. It gives suggestions to Gram Panchayat for agricultural and small scale industry development in the village. 

Questions 5. What is the composition of Gram Panchayat? 

Answer: Every village having a population of 500 people consists of a village panchayat. It is formed by the members elected by the people of villages. The members of Panchayat are called Panchas and its head is known as Sarpanch to be elected for three years. The number of members should be minimum 5 or maximum 10. Every panchayat must have one female candidate and one or two members from SCs. 

Questions 6. What are the main functions of panchayats? 

Answer: To call upon the meetings of panchayats and to preside over them. To settle down disputes with the help of other members (Panchas). To make plan for the welfare of the people. To obtain cash grants from state government for developmental projects of village. He is mediator between the villagers and the state government. 

Questions 7. What is the composition of Zila Parishad? 

Answer: After the 73rd Amendment: The members of Zila Parishad are elected by the people. The chairman is elected from among the elected members by the people. MPs, MLAs, Collector, Deputy Collector and SDM are its ex-officio members. The reservation has been made for SCs, STs and women. 

Questions 8. Mention the sources of income to Zila Parishad. 

Answer: In some state Zila Parishad is empowered to impose small taxes. It submits its annual budget to the state government for its approval. In some states, it receives some amount as a contribution made by panchayat samitis. It receives some amount in the form of government grants for development projects. 

Question 9. What is the composition of finance commission? 

Answer: The state government appoints the state finance commission after every five years to allocate funds to the rural local self-government. 

Question 10. What are the functions of state finance commission? 

Answer: To examine the financial position of local governments. To provide recommendations to strengthen local government. It reviews the distribution of revenues between the state and local government as well as between the local and urban local government. To allocate the funds to the rural local self-government. 

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions 

Question 1. What does the Panchayati Raj stand for? 

Answer: Panchayati Raj was incorporated on the suggestions given by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1956, which said that without the cooperation of local people, the development work cannot take place at local level. Hence, the three-tier system was established to decentralise the power and to give due representation to the local people to implement the programmes: Panchayats at village level. Block Committees or samitis at block level. Zila Parishad or District Council at district level. 

Question 2. What is the composition of Panchayat Samiti? 

Answer: The block panchayat is known as panchayat samiti, consisting of following members: All the Panchs and Sarpanchs of panchayats in a Block elect some members from among themselves. In some states, Sarpanchs are ex-officio members of panchayat samiti. All the MLAs and MPs of the district are ex-officio members of panchayat samiti. The Sub-divisional Magistrate and the Block Development Officers are ex-officio members of panchayat samiti. 1/3 seats have been reserved for women as well as for SCs and STs. 

Question 3. What are the main functions of Gram Panchayat? 

Answer: It works for promotion of agriculture to make arrangements for seeds and to make farmers aware of modern methods of agriculture. It makes arrangements for providing primary education to the children. It provides sanitary arrangements and facilities in the village. It makes efforts to improve health of the people and opens hospitals and dispensaries. It also makes arrangements for street lighting also. 

Question 4. What are the main functions of Gram Sabha? 

Answer: Gram Sabha elect the Pradhan and Panchs of the Panchayat. Even it can remove the Panchs and Sarpanch by passing a resolution by 2/3 majority. It approves the annual budget of the village and votes on the imposition of taxes. Gram Sabha passes the annual budget of Gram Panchayat. The Gram Sabha decides the policies also for development work of the village. 

Question 5. Mention the weaknesses of Panchayati Raj system. 

Answer: Due to illiteracy, most of the members are unable to understand the real concept of democracy. The village people still have the differences on the basis of caste and community, hence, they do not have real environment for democracy. Sometimes, the political parties interferes in the functioning of village panchayats. 

Question 6. What were the constitutional provisions for local self-government before 1992? 

Answer: Local government’s subjects were assigned to the state government. These were included as Directive Principles of State Policy. These were non-justiciable and only advisory in nature. In 1952, a three tier system of local government was recommended, but these had no powers and functions to look after. The elections were not held regularly. These had to be dependent on the states for their grants and finances. 

Question 7. ‘The local government strengthens democracy’. Justify the statement. 

Answer: The local government involves the participation of local people. It deals with the day-to-day life and problems of ordinary citizens. Strong local governments ensure purposeful accountability. Common peoples are the decision-making body for their needs and development. 

Question 8. What is the importance of year 1992 and 1993 for local governments? 

Answer: In 1992-73rd and 74th Amendment Acts were passed by the parliament. The 73rd Amendment was about rural local government and the 74th amendment was about urban local self-government. Both the Amendment Acts came into force in 1993. All the states had to change their laws about local bodies due to these amendments. The states were given only one year time for making necessary changes in their state laws. 

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT
 Passage-Based Questions 

 Passage 1. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 191) given below carefully and answer the questions that follows: 

 The Constitutional amendments assigned as many as 29 subjects to the local governments. All these subjects are related to functions linked to local welfare and development needs. The experience with the functioning of local government in the past decade has shown that local governments in India enjoy limited autonomy to perform the functions assigned to them. Many States have not transferred most of the subjects to the local bodies. This means that the local bodies cannot really function in an effective manner. Therefore, the entire exercise of electing so many representatives becomes somewhat symbolic. Some people criticise the formation of the local bodies because this has not changed the way in which decisions are taken at the central and the State level. People at the local level do not enjoy much powers of choosing welfare programmes or allocation of resources. 

 Questions:      1. How many subjects have been assigned to local governments? 

                        2. What is the main theme of these subjects? 

                        3. How can we say that local government enjoy limited autonomy only?                                                    4. On what grounds, the formation of local bodies have been criticised? 

Answers: 1. 29 subjects have been assigned to local governments. 

                2. These subjects are related to functions linked to local welfare and development needs. 

                3. Because many states have not transferred most of the subjects to the local bodies. Hence, many representatives become symbolic only. 

                4. Because, the decisions taking methods have not been changed at the central and state level. So the people at local level do not enjoy much powers of choosing welfare programmes or allocation of resources. 

 Passage 2. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 186) given below carefully and answer the questions that follows: The State government is required to appoint a State Election Commissioner who would be responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Earlier, this task was performed by the State administration which was under the control of the State government. Now, the office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commissioner of India. However, the State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India. 

 Questions: 1. Who conducts elections for local bodies? 

2. Who performed this task earlier? 

3. What is the status of State Election Commissioner? 

Answers: 1. State Election Commissioner conducts the elections for local bodies. 

 2. State Administration under the control of state government. 

 3. State Election Commissioner is an independent officer who is not linked to nor under the control of election commission of India. 

 Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT 
Long Answer Type Questions 

 Question 1. Mention some subjects included in the eleventh schedule. 

Answer: Eleventh schedule was listed with the 29 subjects in 1992 by the 73rd Amendment Act: Agriculture and agricultural extension. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development. Small scale industries including food processing. Rural housing. Drinking water. Roads, culverts Rural electrification Poverty alleviation programmes. Primary and secondary education. Technical training and vocational education. Adult and non-formal education. Libraries Cultural activities Markets and fairs Health and sanitation. Family welfare Women and child development Social welfare. Welfare of weaker sections especially SC’s and ST’s Public Distribution System. Fuel and Fodder Non-conventional energy resources. Maintenance of community assets. Fisheries Animal husbandry, dairy poultry. Soil forestry Implementation of land reforms, soil conservation, etc. Khadi village and cottage industries. Minor forest produce. 

Question 2. Explain the three tier structure of Panchayati Raj alongwith one function of each of them. Answer: The Panchayati Raj has three-tier system: Gram Panchayat at village level Panchayat Samiti at block level Zila parishad at district level Composition of Gram Panchayat: The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by Gram Sabha and every adult who is the resident of village has the right to vote in these elections. Functions: Makes arrangements for pure drinking water. To improve sanitary conditions. Makes efforts for improving health of people by opening hospitals and dispensaries. Composition of Panchayat Samiti: The members are elected directly by Universal Adult Franchise. MLAs, MPs, SDM, BDO are the ex-office members. Apart, other members are elected and seats are reserved for SC’s and ST’s in proportion of population. 30% seats are reserved for women. Its term is for five years. Functions: It looks after all the works of the gram panchayat in the area. Promote scientific and modern agricultural practices and distributes seeds, fertilizers and scientific equipments. 3. Composition of Zila Parishad: The chairman will be elected by the elected members. MPs, MLAs, Collector, Deputy Collectors, SDMs will be ex-officio members. The provision of Zila Parishad is composed of elected members. A finance commission will be set up to review financial position and to recommend allocation of funds and grants in aid. Functions: To co-ordinate the working of Gram panchayats and panchayat samitis in the districD. The panchayat samitis pass their annual budget and send it to Zila Parishad. 120 

Question 3. Distinguish between Gram Panchayat and Gram Sabha. What are the functions of Gram Panchayat? 

Answer: Difference: Gram Sabha consists of all the adult members (who has attained the age of 18 years) of a village or a cluster of villages constituting Gram Sabha, whereas Gram Panchayat is a small body, whose members are elected by the members of Gram Sabha. The term of office of Gram Panchayat is for five years whereas the Gram Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. Gram Panchayat is an executive organ and monitors and evaluates the activities of Gram panchayat. Functions: Gram Panchayat looks after better health and life of the people to make proper civic amenities as village sanitation,drinking water, arrangements of lightening, etc. Gram Panchayat keeps the records of birth and death in village to ensure effective implementation of family planning and family welfare programmes, i.e. animal husbandry, agricultural development, etc. Gram Panchayat is responsible for certain development functions at village level, i.e. construction of roads, irrigation, etc. 

Question 4. What is the importance of local bodies in modern times? 

Answer: The local self bodies are related with the daily life of the people to perform functions related to education, sanitation, public health, etc. The local bodies provide the right solution of the local problems due to participation of local peoples, where the central and state governments are unable to pick up the exact nature of problem. The local bodies lessen the work-load of the central and state government because they could not spare time to look into the local matters. Hence, local bodies can solve these problems easily. The local bodies develop the qualities of citizens to awaken the political consciousness and to experience the sense of liberty and equality which is essential for the success of democracy. It creates decentralization of powers, where people directly participate in the daily need, jobs and feed satisfied. 

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 

Political Science 

Chapter 7 

Federalism 

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved 

Question 1. From the list of following events which ones would you identify with the functioning of federalism? Why? 1. The Centre on Tuesday announced Sixth Schedule status to GNLF-led Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council, which would ensure greater autonomy to the governing body in the Hill district of West Bengal. A tripartite Memorandum of Settlement was signed in New Delhi between, the Centre, West Bengal government and the Subhas Ghising-led Gorkha National Liberation Front (GNLF) after two days of hectic deliberations. 2. Government for action plan for rain-hit states: Centre has asked the rain-ravaged States to submit detailed plans for reconstruction to enable it to respond to their demands for extra relief expeditiously. 3. New Commissioner for Delhi: The Capital is getting a new municipal commissioner. Confirming this, present MCD Commissioner Rakesh Mehta said he has received his transfer orders and that he is likely to be replaced by IAS officer Ashok Kumar, who is serving as the Chief Secretary in Arunachal Pradesh: Mehta, a 1975 batch IAS officer, has been heading the MCD for about three-and-a-half years. 4. CU Status for Manipur University: Rajya Sabha on Wednesday passed a Bill to convert the Manipur University into a Central University with the Human Resource Development Minister promising such institutions in the North Eastern States of Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and Sikkim as well. 5. Funds released: The Centre has released ? 553 lakh to Arunachal Pradesh under its rural water supply scheme. The first instalment was of? 466.81 lakh. 6. We’ll teach the Biharis how to live in Mumbai: Around 100 Shiv Sainiks stormed J. J. Hospital, disrupted daily operations, raised slogans and threatened to take matters into their own hands if no action was taken against non-Maharashtrian students. 7. Demand for dismissal of Government: The Congress Legislature Party (CLP) in a representation submitted to State Governor recently, has demanded dismissal of the ruling Democratic Alliance of Nagaland (DAN) government for its alleged financial mismanagement and embezzlement of public money. 8. NDA government asks Naxalites to surrender arms: Amid a walkout by opposition RJD and its allies Congress and CPI (M), the Bihar government today appealed to the Naxalites to shun the path of violence and reaffirmed its pledge to root out unemployment to usher in a new era of development in Bihar. Answer: 1. The very much fact that the State concerned, i.e. West Bengal was appointed as a party to the settlement marks the event as a manifestation of working of federalism. 2. It throws light on the sensitivity of the centre which wants to provide help to the rain- ravaged states to sort out their problems. Hence, it can be identified as federalism. 3. It shows the transfer of an officer from one place to another, showing federalism. 4. In the constitution of India, education-subject comes under the concurrent list to strengthen federation by establishing central institutes to be identified as a functioning of federalism. 5. This is also federalism because centre releases funds for States under its rural water supply scheme. (Arunachal Pradesh). 6. This cannot be identified as federalism because the act of Shiv Sainiks does not promote fraternity, cooperation or mutual trust and respect. 7. This identifies the federalism. 8. This is a function of state government. Question 2. Think which of the following statements would be correct. State why. 1. Federalism enhances the possibility of people from different regions to interact without the fear of one’s culture being imposed upon them by others. 2. Federal system will hinder easier economic transaction between two different regions that have distinct types of resources. 3. A federal system will ensure that the powers of those at the centre will remain limited. Answer: 1. This is correct because the federal government distributes the power between the central government and the state government and local self-government. 2. This statement is not correct because the resources are of distinct type and federalism gives impetus to the economic transaction among different regions. 3. This is correct because federalism refers more powers to the constituent units of federation. Question 3. Based on the first few articles of Belgian constitution given below, explain how federalism is visualized in that country. Try and write a similar Article for the Constitution of India. Title I: On Federal Belgium, its components and its territory. 1. Article 1 : Belgium is a Federal State made up of communities and regions. 2. Article 2 : Belgium is made up of three communities: The French Community, the Flemish Community and the German Community. 3. Article 3 : Belgium is made up of three regions: The Walloon region, the Flemish region and the Brussels region. 4. Article 4 : Belgium has four linguistic regions: The French-speaking region, the Dutch-speaking region, the bilingual region of Brussels Capital and the German-speaking region. Each commune (county borough) of the Kingdom is a part of one of these linguistic regions 5. Article 5: The Walloon region is made up of the following provinces: The Walloon Brabant, Hainault, Liege, Luxemburg and Namur. The Flemish region is made up of the following provinces: Antwerp, the Flemish Brabant, West Flanders, East Flanders and Limburg. Answer: 1. Article (1): It says that India shall be a union of States. 2. Article (2): India aspires to be a society free from caste discrimination but seats in each province have been distributed among the communities of Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and General. 3. Article (3): India is a union of 29 states and seven union territories. As per Article (1) of constitution of India: India, shall be a union of states. The states and union territories shall be specified in the first schedule. 4. Article (4): The eighth schedule of the constitution of India describes 18 different languages: Hindi Kashmiri Gujarati Bengali Assamese Konkani Malyalam Manipuri Punjabi Urdu Sanskrit Sindhi Tamil Telugu Marathi Nepali Kannada Oriya to be spoken in different regions of India. 5. Article (5): As per Article (1) (2) states that states and the union territories shall be specified in the first schedule. Question 4. Imagine that you were to rewrite the provisions regarding federalism. Write an essay of not more than 300 words making your suggestions about: (a) division of powers among the center and the States, (b) distribution of financial resources, (c) methods of resolving inter-State disputes and (d) appointment of Governors Answer: Federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics one-at the national level and the other at the regional level: (a) Division of powers: The powers are distributed between the central government and the state governments. The constitution demarcates the subjects clearly in the lists. The disputes are settled by the judiciary. The economic and the financial powers have been centralised to the central government. (b) Distribution of financial resources: Some certain taxes are levelled by the center but are collected by the states, i.e. stamp duty and the taxes on production of medicines and cosmetic preparations. Some certain taxes are levied and collected by the center and are distributed among the states, i.e. succession of property other than agricultural land, terminal taxes on goods and passengers carried by railway, sea and air, taxes on railways freights and fare, taxes on newspaper, etc. The taxes which are levied and collected by the center but are distributed between the center and the states, i.e. income tax on the income other than agricultural land on the recommendation of the finance commission. Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal and Assam have been given grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products. (c) Methods of resolving inter-state dispute: An inter-state committee can be established by the Parliament if it thinks it to be fit. This committee enquirers into the dispute and submits its report and recommendations to the Parliament. Example: Haryana and Punjab dispute on Chandigarh Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat have dispute over sharing of water of Narmada river. (d) Appointment of Governors: The Governors of the states are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Council of Ministers at center. He enjoys the power to remove them also. Hence, the Governors work as the representatives of the central Government in the state who inform the center about the condition of the states if required. Question 5. Which of the following should be the basis for formation of a State? Why? (a) Common language (b) Common economic interests (c) Common religion (d) Administrative convenience Answer: In a federation different states are formed on the basis of common language they speak. Hence, federation is the unity in diversity. But, the administrative convenience should be the based for formation of states to develop a culture of mutual trust, tolerance and cooperation. Question 6. Majority of people from the States of north India—Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar—speak Hindi. If all these States are combined to form one State, would it be in tune with the idea of federalism? Give arguments. Answer: Federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two seats of politics-one at the national level and the other at the regional level. If all the Hindi speaking regions of India, i.e. Rajasthan, U.P., M.P., Bihar, Gujarat are combined then there would be only a unitary or single unit, this cannot be called a federation. Question 7. List four features of the Indian Constitution that give greater power to the central government than the State government. Answer: Strong centre: Various subjects have been demarcated in the division of lists, i.e. union list—97 subjects, states list-66 and concurrent list-47 subjects. All the subjects, which have national importance, included in the union list. In case of any conflict on the subjects of concurrent list, the saying of the central government is important, rather than state government. When an emergency is imposed on the nation or partially, then the central government is empowered to frame the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list. The emergency powers: During the declaration of national emergency, the government is changed to a unitary form, from a federation. Hence, the central government exercises the legislative and executive power of the state but state legislature or executive are not dissolved. If emergency is declared in a particular state due to failure of constitutional machinery there, the legislative powers goes into the hands of the center and the executive power goes in the hands of the President. In case of declaration of financial emergency by the President, the center is again authorized to issue directions concerning the economy of the state and they will obey it. 3. Financial dependance of the states on centre: The centre enjoys more resources for revenue rather than the states. The states can get loan from the centre if required. The states apply for grants-in-aid from the centre. Hence, states are dependent on the centre financially. 4. Appointment of Governors: The Governor is the head of the state as well as an agent of the central government. He is appointed by the President of India and remains in the office till the pleasure of the President. Hence, Governors act according to the wishes of the central government. Question 8. Why are many States unhappy about the role of the Governor? Answer: The role of Governor is referred to as an interference by the central government inthe functioning of the state government, hence it becomes controversial. This controversy becomes much more if the power vests in the different lands at the centre and the state. As per Article 356, the Governor exercises the power to recommend the dissolution of state assembly. Examples The central governments dismissed the elected governments in Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir in 1980’s. In Bihar also, state assembly was dissolved on the recommendation of the Governor in 2005. Though it was later pronounced unconstitutional. Due to these practices of Governor, the states remain unhappy with them. Question 9. President’s rule can be imposed in a State if the government is not being run according to the provisions of the Constitution. State whether any of the following conditions are a fit case for imposition of President’s rule in the State. Give reasons. 1. Two members of the State legislative assembly belonging to the main opposition party have been killed by criminals and the opposition is demanding dismissal of the State government. 2. Kidnapping of young children for ransom is on rise. The number of crimes against women are increasing. 3. No political party has secured majority in the recent elections of the State Legislative Assembly. It is feared that some MLAs from the other parties may be lured to support a political party in return for money. 4. Different political parties are ruling in the State and at the center and they are bitter opponents of each other. 5. More than 2000 people have been killed in the communal riots. 6. In the water dispute between the two States, one State government refused to follow the decision of the Supreme Court. Answer: 1. This circumstance does not show the failure of constitutional machinery, hence the President’s rule cannot be declared under Article 356. 2. This circumstance does not imply failure of constitutional machinery, hence, President’s rule cannot be imposed. 3. It does not imply to impose the President’s rule. 4. Two parties are ruling in the State and at the Center is the federalism, though they may be bitter opponents to each other but it is not the situation to impose President’s rule. 5. It is a fit circumstance for the imposition of President’s rule because it has created a grave law and order problem in the state, hence, it shows the failure of constitutional machinery. 6. It is a fit position to declare President’s rule because no state can go beyond the decision of the Supreme Court and if any state is doing this it means the administration is not being carried out as per the provisions of the constitution. Question 10. What are the demands raised by the States in their quest for greater autonomy? Answer: Different states and political parties have adopted different methods to demand more autonomy: State demanded independent sources of revenue, i.e. Punjab and Tamil Nadu for greater financial powers. Demand to enjoy residual powers by the State as States feel themselves weak and feel their interests to be horned. Demand to enjoy some greater powers to legislate laws on the subjects mentioned in the State list. States demand autonomy on the cultural and linguistic issues. Question 11. Should some States be governed by special provisions? Does this create resentment among other States? Does this help in forging greater unity among the regions of the country? Answer: Some States feel resentment among other States if some States are granted the special provision by the constitution: Under Article 370, Jammu and Kashmir enjoys more autonomous powers rather than the other States. Most of the special provisions pertain to the north-eastern states like Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Assam, Nagaland, etc. due to sizeable indigineous tribal population with a distinct history and culture, which they wish to retain under Article 371. Even some hill States like Himachal Pradesh and some other States like Maharashtra, Goa, Sikkim, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh also enjoy some special provisons. Some differences in case of division of the part of Uttar Pradesh in Uttarakhand, where the people can purchase agricultural land in Uttar Pradesh also but the people from Uttar Pradesh cannot purchase in Uttarakhand, createsresentment among the poeple. Hence, the other States demand the division of power in a common manner to all. This forges unity in diversity due to single citizenship and single judiciary in country. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions Solved Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions Question 1. What is federalism? Answer: Federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics one at the national level and the other at the regional level. Question 2. When and how did federation come into existence? Answer: The federation in India has come into existence by the integration of independent princely states into British provinces. Question 3. Which two countries have faced the disintegration after 1970? Answer: USSR (Now Russia) Czecoslovakia Yugoslavia Pakistan Question 4. Mention any three federal features of the Indian Constitution. Answer: Rigid Constitution Written Constitution Division of Powers Question 5. How many languages are there in India? Answer: 20 major languages and several hundred dialects. Question 6. How have the powers been distributed in the federation of India? Answer: The Constitution of India has provided the various lists of powers, i.e. The central, state and concurrent list. The central list contains 97 subjects of national importance, state list (66) of state subjects and concurrent list contain 47 subjects on which both can frame laws. Question 7. What are the factors which make a federalism successful? Answer: A written constitution. An independent judiciary. Cooperation and mutual trust. Political parties. A clear distribution of powers in various lists. Question 3. Mention some unitary features of the Constitution of India. Answer: Division of power has gone in the favour of central government only which consists of 97 subjects in the union list. Every individual living in India enjoys single citizenship, i.e. Indian only. The governors of states are appointed by the President only and they remain in the office till the pleasure of central government. Question 4. What is the role of judiciary in federalism of India? Answer: An independent judiciary has been set up to settle the disputes between the centre and the state government. Judiciary enjoys the powers to resolve the disputes between the central government and the state government, if any problem arises on legal matters and division of powers. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions Question 1. Justify that Constitution of India is a combination of federal and unitary forms of government. Answer: The Constitution of India is federal in form but unitary in spirit because it possesses the following provisions: The distribution of powers between the centre and the state has been made very clear through various lists. The independent judiciary is known as the guardian of the constitution to determine either the laws implemented are in the limit of constitution or not. The constitution of India is rigid on the one hand but flexible also on the other hand as per provisions made for amendments. Question 2. Mention some features of federal government. Answer: Federal form of government is the distribution of powers between the center and state and to let it work under their own spheres without any under interference: There are two sets of polities—one at the national level and the other at the regional level. And every government is autonomous in its own spheres. It combines the national unity along with the autonomy of local bodies. It works as a custodian to the weaker states to protect them from stronger states. An independent judiciary has been set up to settle the disputes. A written constitution contains the details of proper distribution of powers and is the supreme in India. Hence, federal government establishes unity in diversity which accommodates all the diversities in it. Question 3. Can Union Parliament frame laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list? Explain. Answer: Yes, Union Parliament or central government can frame the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list in the following circumstances: If any subject has been referred to the central government as the subject of national importance by Rajya Sabha through a resolution passed by 2/3 majority of members present and voting. Under Article 252, if two or more states desire to frame laws by the central government. In case, if emergency is imposed due to war and external or internal aggression or President’s rule has been declared in the state. Also, in order to implement some international treaty or convention, etc. Question 4. Explain the financial relations between the union and the states. Answer: Some certain taxes are levied by center and collected by the state, i.e. stamp duty and the taxes on production of medicines, etc. Taxes are levied and collected by the parliament but are distributed among the states, i.e. terminal taxes, taxes on interstate trade and commerce and duties on succession of property other than agricultural land. Certain taxes are levied and collected by the center but these are distributed between the center and the state both, i.e. income tax. Article 273 contains the provisions regarding the grants provided to the states by the central government, out of consolidated fund of India. The states of Assam, West Bengal, Bihar and Oidssa have been given grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products as well. A finance commission is appointed by the President of India after every five years which makes recommendations on the financial matters to be referred by the President. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions Passage 1. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 169) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: Broadly, two types of disputes keep recurring. One is the border dispute. States have certain claims over territories belonging to neighbouring States. Though language is the basis of defining boundaries of the States, often border areas would Jiave populations speaking more than one language. So, it is not easy to resolve this dispute merely on the basis of linguistic majority. One of the long standing border disputes is the dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka over the city of Belgaum. Manipur and Nagaland too, have a long-standing border dispute. The carving out of Haryana from the erstwhile State of Punjab has led to dispute between the two States not only over border areas, but over the capital city of Chandigarh. This city today houses the capital of both these States. In 1985, the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi reached an understanding with the leadership of Punjab. According to this understanding, Chandigarh was to be handed over to Punjab. But this has not happened yet. Questions: 1. Mention any two types of disputes between states. 2. On v/hich city have Maharashtra and Karnataka a dispute? 3. Name the leader who reached an agreement/understanding with Punjab and when. 4. What was the agreement? Answers: 1. Border dispute Sharing of river water 2. Belgaum 3. The then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in 1985. 4. To hand over Chandigarh to Punjab. Passage 2. Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 171) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: Most of the Muslim majority States joined Pakistan but J&K was an exception. Under these circumstances, it was given much greater autonomy by the Constitution. According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists. This is different from the position of other States. In the case of other States, the division of powers as listed through the three lists automatically applies. In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the central government has only limited powers and other powers listed in the Union List and Concurrent List can be used only with the consent of the State government. This gives the State of Jammu and Kashmir gTeater autonomy. Questions: 1. Under which Article of constitution, J&K has been considered exceptional? 2. What is this exception? 3. How does J&K exercise this autonomy? Answers: 1. Article 370 2. The state of Jammu and Kashmir enjoys some greater autonomy than other states. 3. In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the central government has only limited powers and other listed in union list and concurrent list can be used only with the consent of state government. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions Question 1. Legislative powers have been distributed between the central and state government. Justify. Answer: Legislative relations between the central and state government have been distributed through the various lists, i.e. the union list, state list and concurrent list: 1. The union list: The union list contains 98 subjects after 42nd amendment, (Previously had 97) On these, subjects, only central government can frame or implement laws. These subjects are of national importance and equally applicable to citizens of India. Its examples are defence, foreign affairs, railways, peace and war, communication, etc. 2. The state list: This list contains 66 subjects after 42nd amendment (Previously were 62) On these subjects, only states can legislate the laws. These subjects are of state importance. Its examples are police, education, public health, law and order, local-self government, etc. 3. Concurrent list: This list contains 52 subjects after 42nd amendment. (Previously were 47) Both the central and state governments can implement laws the subjects. Its examples are marriage, divorce, electricity, price control, etc. 4. Residuary powers: To make the center very strong, the residuary powers have been given to the central government only. 5. Union government can implement laws on the subjects of state list: At the resolution of Rajya Sabha by 2/3 majority which has declared any subject of national importance. If two or more states request the union government to enact law on particular subject. If emergency has been proclaimed either on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery or war, external or internal aggression and armed revolt. Question 2. What is the administrative relationship between the central and state government in India? Explain. Answer: The central government is empowered to give directions to the state government if it feels that any law has become a hindrance in the functioning of central government of any law has not been executed very well. The governors of the states are appointed by the central government only who works as an agent between the centre and the state. The governor informs about the functioning of the state to the central government, and council of ministers reserves the right to remove him also. The parliament establishes an inter-state council also to enquire into the inter-state disputes, to submit recommendations, and to consider the common interest. If an emergency is proclaimed, due to external or internal aggression or war or failure of constitutional machinary, all the powers are vested into the hands of central government to implement the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list. Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Picture-Based Questions 1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 165) given below and answer the questions that follow: NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Federalism Picture Based Questions Q1 Questions: 1. Identify the person making an appeal. 2. What appeal is being made by him? 3. What message does the cartoon convey? Answers: 1. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru 2. To show greater tolerance towards other languages also. 3. Autonomy demands may be related to cultural and linguistic issues because some states feel that there is a domination of Hindi speaking areas over others. 2. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 167) given below and answer the questions that follow: NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Federalism Picture Based Questions Q2 Questions: 1. What message does the cartoon convey? 2. How did it happen? 3. When was the states reorganization commission set up? Answers: 1. Demand for new states. 2. During the national movement, it was decided that as far as possible states would be created on the basis of common cultural and linguistic identity. 3. In December 1953. Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions